RRB JE Mechanical Engineering Questions with Answer – 2015

RRB JE Exam – Basic Information

RRB JE is the name of exam for recruitment of Junior Engineers in Indian Railways under the Government of India. RRB JE stands for Railway Recruitment Board Junior Engineer Exam. It is conducted by Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) of various Zones of Indian Railways. It is a technical examination and the minimum eligibility required is Diploma or B.Tech in Engineering.

RRB JE is a very popular exam among the Mechanical Engineers. It consists of two written tests and after qualifying the exam, the candidate is recruited to Group B Level -6 post of Indian Railways by the name of Junior Engineer. The basic pay is Rs. 35,400/- and the total salary after adding all allowances is around Rs. 70,000/- which is a very good salary.

How to prepare for RRB JE Exam?

To prepare for RRB JE exam, the best way is to have a proper understanding of the type of questions asked in the exam. Therefore we have brought to you the Previous year paper of RRB JE with answers for your ready reference. It will serve as a very good reference for all the aspirants preparing for RRB JE Mechanical Engineering Exam.

Now You can also get full KMC Mechanical SAE Previous Year 2020 Question Papers with Answers. 

RRB JE MECHANICAL ENGINEERING PREVIOUS YEAR 2015 QUESTION WITH ANSWERS

1. The cyclic integral of (δQ – δW) for a
   process is
   A. Positive B. Negative
   C. Zero D. Unpredictable

2. Triple point temperature water is
   A. 273 K B. 273.14 K
   C. 273.15 K D. 273.16 K

3. Which of the following law of
   thermodynamics is responsible for heat
   transfer
   A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
   B. First law of thermodynamics
   C. Second law of thermodynamics
   D. Third law of thermodynamics

4. Which one of the following modes of
   heat transfer would takes place
   predominantly from boiler furnace to
   water wall
   A. Convection
   B. Conduction
   C. Radiation
   D. Conduction and Convection

5. Compression ratio in case of SI engine
   is in the range of
   A. 6-10 B. 10-15
   C. 16-25 D. 25-40

6. Mean effective pressure of otto cycle is
   A. Inversely proportional to pressure
   ratio
   B. Directly proportional to pressure
   ratio
   C. Does not depend on pressure ratio
   D. Proportional to square root of
   pressure ratio

7. The choke is applied when the engine is
   A. Accelerating B. Hot
   C. Cold D. Idling

8. In which of the following milling
   operation cutter is rotated in same
   direction of travel of work piece
   A. Up milling B. Down milling
   C. Face milling D. End milling

9. Dry and compressed air is used as
   cutting fluid for machining
   A. Steel B. Aluminium
   C. Cast iron D. Brass

10. Spine-holes are machined by
    A. Milling B. Boring
    C. Drilling D. Broaching

11. In the forging operation, fullering is
    done to
    A. Draw out the material
    B. Bend the material
    C. Upset the material
    D. Extrude the material

12. Which one of the following is not a
    fusion welding process
    A. Gas welding
    B. Arc welding
    C. Brazing
    D. Resistance welding

13. The centrifugal casting method is used
    for casting articles of
    A. Symmetrical shape about vertical
    axis
    B. Symmetrical shape about vertical
    axis
    C. Irregular shape
    D. Non-ferrous metal only

14. The purpose of jigs and fixture is to
    A. Increase interchangeability
    B. facilitate interchangeability
    C. Decrease expenditure on quality
    control
    D. Decrease Machining accuracy

15. Directional relays are based on the flow
    of
    A. Power B. Voltage wave
    C. Current D. Field

16. In fuel cell, ……………. Energy is
    converted into electrical energy.
    A. mechanical B. heat
    C. sound D. chemical

17. Francis turbine is usually used for
    A. medium heads
    B. lower heads
    C. higher heads
    D. lower, medium and higher heads

18. The angle between rotating stator flux
    and rotor poles is called.
    A. torque angle
    B. obtuse angle
    C. synchronizing angle
    D. power factor angle

19. Which of the following motors is used in
    tape recorders
    A. Hysterisis motor
    B. Reluctance motor
    C. Capacitor run motor
    D. Universal motor

20. Slip ring for induction motors are made
    up of
    A. cobalt steel B. aluminium
    C. carbon D. phosphor bronze

21. A transformer is working at its
    maximum efficiency. Its iron loss is 1
    kW. Its copper loss will be
    A. 0.2 kW B. 0.25 kW
    C. 0.5 kW D. 1 kW

22. For arc heating, electrodes are made up
    of
    A. Copper B. Aluminium
    C. Graphite D. Tungsten

23. Sodium lamps are used in
    A. Reading rooms B. Street Lights
    C. Auditorims D. Libraries

24. The fuse wire is made up of
    A. Nichrome B. Lead-tin alloy
    C. Copper D. Tungsten

25. There are ………… Number of modulation
    techniques.
    A. 1 B. 2
    C. 3 D. 4

RRB JE MECHANICAL ENGINEERING PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWERS 2015

26. In frequency modulation
    A. amplitude of carrier wave remains
    the same
    B. frequency of carrier wave remains
    constant
    C. both frequency and amplitude of
    carrier waves vary
    D. signal gets distorted.

27. In mercury are rectifier, mercury is
    used as
    A. cathode
    B. conducting medium
    C. ionizing medium
    D. electron accelerator

28. For single phase rotary converters,
    when the power factor is unity, the ac
    to dc current ratio will be
    A. 1.0 B. 0.707
    C. 1.4 D. 0.5

29. When a material becomes a
    superconductor, its resistivity becomes
    A. very small
    B. zero
    C. about 10% of normal value
    D. about 20% of normal value

30. The inputs of logic gate are 0. The
    output is 1. The gate is
    A. NAND or XOR B. OR or XOR
    C. AND or XOR D. NOR or Ex-NOR

31. Octal number 12 is equal to decimal
    number
    A. 9 B. 10
    C. 11 D. 12

32. The output of a NOR gats is HIGH if
    …………….
    A. all inputs are high
    B. any input is high
    C. any input is low
    D. all input are low

33. A circuit that uses n amplifier with
    passive filter elements is called a (n)
    A. relaxation osillator
    B. signal generator
    C. active filter
    D. differential amplifier

34. Ionization within a P-N junction causes
    a layer on each side of the barrier called
    the
    A. junction B. depletion region
    C. barrier voltage D. forward voltage

35. Cup-and-cone type fracture occurs in
    the case of
    A. Cast iron
    B. Round specimen of ductile metals
    C. Tough steel
    D. Soft brass

36. Liquid limit of a soil indicates its
    A. Compressibility
    B. Permeability
    C. Optimum moisture
    D. Shear strength

37. Deep beams are designed for
    A. Shear force only
    B. Bending moment only
    C. Both shear force and bending
    moment
    D. Bearing

38. Which one of the following stresses is
    independent of yield stress as a
    permissible stress for steel member?
    A. Axial tensile stress
    B. Maximum shear stress
    C. Bearing stress
    D. Stress in slab base

39. The capillary depression in mercury is
    on account of
    A. Adhesion being larger than the
    viscosity
    B. Surface tension being larger than the
    viscosity
    C. Cohesion being greater than the
    adhesion
    D. Vapour pressure being small

40. Ranging is the process of
    A. Fixing ranging rods on the
    extremities of the area
    B. Aligning the chain in a straight line
    between two extremities
    C. Taking offsets from a chain line
    D. Chaining over a range of mountains

41. Economic saving of time results by
    crashing
    A. Cheapest critical activity
    B. Cheapest non critical activity
    C. Costliest critical activity
    D. Costliest non critical activity

42. Which one of the following does not
    react with concrete?
    A. Sewage water B. Sulphuric acid
    C. Vegetable oil D. Alcohol

43. The porosity of a soil sample having its
    void ratio equal to unity would be
    A. 33.34% B. 50.0%
    C. 66.66% D. 75.0%

44. What is the angle between two plane
    mirror of an optical square?
    A. 30 B. 60
    C. 45 D. 90

45. Theodolite is an instrument used of
    A. Tightening the capstan-headed nuts
    of level tube
    B. Measurement of horizontal angles
    only
    C. Measurement of vertical angles only
    D. Measurement of both horizontal and
    vertical angles

46. An aeroplane works on
    A. Archimedes principle
    B. Pascal’s law
    C. Bernoull’s principle
    D. Stoke’s law

47. In 3 phase power measurement by two
    wattmeter method, the reading of one
    wattmeter is zero. The power factor of
    load is
    A. 1 B. 0.5
    C. 0 D. 0.8

48. In a CRO which of the following is not a
    part of electron gun
    A. cathode B. grid
    C. accelerating anode D. X-Y plates

49. In a strain measuring device using a
    strain gauge, the output quantity is
    A. voltage
    B. resistance
    C. impedance
    D. current

50. Potentiometer method of dc voltage
    measurement is more accurate than
    direct measurement using a voltmeter
    because
    A. it loads the circuit to maximum
    extent
    B. it loads the circuit moderately
    C. it does not load the circuit at all
    D. it uses centre zero galvanometer
    instead of Voltmeters.

RRB JE MECHANICAL ENGINEERING PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWERS 2015

51. Assertion (A): A hot wire ammeter has
    a cramped scale.
    Reason (R): The heat is proportional
    to square of current.
    A. Both A and R are true and R is correct
    explanation of A
    B. Both A and R are true but R is not
    correct explanation of A
    C. A is true R is false
    D. A is false R is true

52. The standard one colour unit is
    equivalent to
    A. 1 mg/I cobalt chloride
    B. 1 mg/1 platinum cobalt
    C. 1 mg/I platinum chloride
    D. 1 mg/I cobalt sulphate

53. The fluoride concentration less than
    prescribed permissible limit may cause
    A. dental cavities
    B. spotting in teeth
    C. discoloration of teeth
    D. fluorosis

54. The ultrafine particle present in surface
    water are removed through
    A. coagulation and flocculation
    B. filtration
    C. sedimentation
    D. reverse osmosis

55. The pollutant lead present in the
    atmosphere may cause
    A. respiratory disease
    B. asthmatic disease
    C. cardiovascular disease
    D. pulmonary edema

56. A continuous exposure of intense noise
    for longer duration may cause
    irreversible damage to the nerves and
    the inner ear resulting loss of sensitivity
    at hither frequencies which is called
    A. acoustic trauma
    B. annoyance
    C. temporary threshold shift
    D. permanent threshold shift

57. The presence of CO2 may reduce the pH
    of rain water up to
    A. 5.6 B. 4.0
    C. 6.5 D. 6.0

58. Plotter is a (an) _____
    A. Input device
    B. Output device
    C. Storage device
    D. Both input and output device

59. DVD stands for ______
    A. Digital Video Disk
    B. Digital Variable Disk
    C. Digital Versatile Disk
    D. Digital Versatile Data

60. Which of the following can be treated as
    both input at well as output device?
    A. Mouse B. Printer
    C. Memory D. Plotter

61. UFT-32 is a (an)__
    A. 16-bit-fixed-width encoding
    B. 16-bit-variable-width encoding
    C. 32-bit-variable-width encoding
    D. 32-bit-fixed-width encoding

62. The octal representation of (A0E)16 is

A. (5016)8 B. (5061)8
C. (1650)8 D. (5610)8

63. Considering X and Y as binary variable,
    the Boolean expression X(X + Y’) is
    equivalent to
    A. X B. 1
    C. 0 D. Y

64. The 2’s compliment of the binary
    number (00001111)2 is
    A. (00001111)2 B. (11110000)2
    C. (10101010)2 D. (11110001)2

65. Which of the following categories of
    viruses normally infect executable code,
    such as .com and .exe files?
    A. File infection viruses
    B. Boot sector viruses
    C. Master boot record viruses
    D. Macro viruses

66. In class ‘C’ IP addresses, number of
    network ID bits used to identify the
    class is____________
    A. 0 B. 1
    C. 2 D. 3

67. Which of the following is a general-
    purpose network?

A. Storage Area Network (SAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Enterprise Private Network (EPN)
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

68. The term “plan” in orthographic
    projection refers to:
    A. top view B. front view
    C. side view D. sectioned view

69. The thread profile having included 55°
    angle is:
    A. V thread
    B. Acme thread
    C. Square thread
    D. Whitworth thread

70. The common map of “rod network” is
    drawn to scale with RF:
    A. Less than one
    B. Greater than one
    C. Equal to one
    D. RF is not relevant for such maps

71. The eccentricity of a hyperbola is equal
    to
    A. Less than one
    B. Greater than one
    C. One
    D. There is not term as eccentricity for
    a parabola

72. The angle between the vertical iso-axis
    and rest of the two iso-axis are:
    A. 15° each B. 90° each
    C. 30° each D. 60° each

73. An object of mass m at rest is acted
    upon by a force. When the velocity-time
    graph of the object is plotted (with
    velocity on y-axis and time on x-axis),
    we get a straight line passing through
    origin and inclined to x-axis. If the force
    (on y-axis) versus time (on x-axis)
    graph is plotted, the graph is a straight
    line
    A. passing through origin and inclined
    to x-axis
    B. passing through origin ad coinciding
    with x-axis
    C. parallel to x-axis
    D. parallel to y-axis

74. The acceleration due to gravity, g, is
    A. independent of the mass of the earth
    B. inversely proportional to the radius
    of the earth
    C. proportional to the mass of the earth
    and inversely proportional to the
    square of the radius of the earth
    D. same at the poles and the equator

75. Rohan (mass 40 kg) and Sohan (mass
    60 kg) climb the stairs of their school
    building to reach the first floor in 40 s
    and 60 s, respectively. Let P1 and P2 be
    the power delivered in this task by
    Rohan and Sohan, respectively. Which
    one of the following is correct?
    A. P1 = P2 B. P1 > P2
    C. P1 < P2 D. P1 = 2 P2

RRB JE MECHANICAL ENGINEERING PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWERS 2015

76. The loudness of softness of a sound is
    determined basically by its
    A. amplitude
    B. frequency
    C. speed
    D. speed and frequency both

77. A ray of light travelling in air is incident
    on a glass slab. Part of it is reflected and
    part is refracted. Let i, r and s be the
    angle of incidence, angle of reflection
    and angle of refraction. Which one of
    the following is correct?
    A. i = r = s
    B. i ≠ r ≠ s
    C. i = r and s < i D. i = r and s > i

78. A conducting wire has length l and area
    of across-section A. The resistivity of its
    materials ρ and its resistance is R. It is
    connected in series with another wire of
    the same dimensions but of a resistivity
    2ρ. The net resistance of the
    combination is
    A. R B. 2R
    C. 3R D. 2R/3

79. Which one of the following changes will
    decrease the vapour pressure of water
    contained in a sealed tube?
    A. Increasing the quantity of water
    B. decreasing the quantity of water
    C. Decreasing the temperature of water
    D. Decreasing the volume of the vessel

80. Which of the following reaction
    represents the process of calcination?
    A. Cu2S + O2 → Cu2O + SO2
    B. ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2
    C. ZnO(s) + C(s) → Zn(s) + CO(g)
    D. 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2(g)

81. Which of the following has only covalent
    bonds between the atoms?
    A. KCl B. HCHO
    C. Na2O D. MgO

82. An acid reacts with a base to form salt
    and water. What type of reaction is this?
    A. Combination
    B. Decomposition
    C. Displacement
    D. Double displacement

83. An acid produces a gas ‘X’ on reaction
    with metal carbonates and hydrogen
    carbonates separately. What is ‘X’ in
    these reactions?
    A. Carbon dioxide B. Carbon monoxide
    C. Sulphur dioxide D. Hydrogen

84. Which one of the following statements
    is correct about Mendeleev’s periodic
    table of elements?
    A. It has 18 groups
    B. It had some gaps for the new
    elements to be discovered later
    C. It has the elements arranged in order
    of their increasing atomic
    numbers.
    D. The table initially contained 112
    elements.

85. Which of the following functions is not
    performed by the kidneys?
    A. Removal of Urea from the body
    B. Regulating the water content of the
    body
    C. Reabsorbing useful substances from
    the filtrate back into blood
    D. Excreting excess hormones present
    in the blood

86. Which is the correct evolutionary
    sequence of vertebrates?
    A. Fish, Amphibians, Birds, Reptiles,
    Mammals
    B. Amphibians, Fish, Reptiles, Birds,
    Mammals
    C. Fish, Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds,
    Mammals
    D. Mammals, Birds, Reptile, Fish,
    Amphibians

87. The organs of plants that carry out
    Photosynthesis are
    A. all kinds of leaves
    B. green leaves only
    C. green leaves in any plant and stem
    in cacti
    D. roots and branches

88. What sperm is to egg
    A. stamen is to carpel
    B. stigma is to ovary
    C. pollen is to style
    D. pollen grain is to ovule

89. The disease Thallasemia wherein a
    person is unable to make Hemoglobin is
    a
    A. Life style disease
    B. infectious disease
    C. Genetic disorder
    D. Metabolic disorder

90.

In the above diagram name of which
gas would you write in the box.
A. Oxygen B. Carbon-di-oxide
C. Nitrogen D. Ammonia

91. The HCF and LCM of first two prime
    numbers is
    A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3
    C. 2, 3 D. 1, 6

92. The least number which when divided
    by 10 and 16 leaving remainder 6 in
    each case is
    A. 36 B. 86
    C. 156 D. 164

93. If a : b = 3 : 7 and a + b = 80, then a
    is equal to
    A. 24 B. 56
    C. 30 D. 60

94. If 8, 3x, 6, 27 are in proportion, then x
    is equal to
    A. 6 B. 9
    C. 12 D. 15

95. If 8% of a number is 24, then number
    is
    A. 200 B. 300
    C. 350 D. 400

96. The simple interest on Rs. 720 for 5
    years, at 6% per annum is
    A. Rs. 216 B. Rs. 232
    C. Rs. 250 D. Rs. 300

97. The compound interest on Rs. 8000 for
    3/2 years at 20% per annum
    compounded half yearly is
    A. Rs. 10648 B. Rs. 3648
    C. Rs. 2648 D. Rs. 2400

98. The cost price of an article is Rs 550. If
    its is sold at profit of 10%, then selling
    price of article is
    A. Rs. 495 B. Rs. 610
    C. Rs. 625 D. Rs. 605

99. The selling price of an article is Rs. 608.
    It it was sold at a loss of 5%, the cost
    rice of the article was
    A. Rs. 620 B. Rs. 640
    C. Rs. 650 D. Rs. 680

100 .A shopkeeper mixes 20 kg of wheat
which cost him Rs. 16/kg with 10 kg of
wheat which cost him Rs. 12/kg. He
sells the mixture at Rs. 17/mg. His gain
is
A. Rs. 50 B. Rs. 60
C. Rs. 70 D. Rs. 80

RRB JE MECHANICAL ENGINEERING PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWERS 2015

101.In two vessels A and B, the milk and
water are in the ratio 5 : 4 and 3 : 5
respectively. The ratio in which these
are mixed to obtain new mixture which
contains half milk and half water is
A. 9 : 4 B. 4 : 9
C. 4 : 3 D. 3 : 4

102.The speed of a car is 54 km/h. The time
taken by it in second, to cover a
distance of 240 m is
A. 12 B. 15
C. 16 D. 18

103.A train is moving at a speed of 72 km/h.
In 40 seconds it will cover a distance of
A. 900 m B. 800 m
C. 600 m D. 550 m

104.B can do a piece of work in 30 days. If
A and B together can do same work in
12 days, then, the number of days
required for A alone to do the same
work is
A. 20 B. 25
C. 30 D. 32

105.P and Q can do a piece work in 20 days,
Q and R in 15 days and R and P in 12
days. The number of days required for
P to do same work is
A. 20 B. 30
C. 40 D. 60

106.The average of first seven whole
numbers is
A. 8 B. 7
C. 6 D. 5

107.The average 16 observations is 25 and
average of 24 observations is 30. The
average of all 40 observation is
A. 26 B. 27
C. 27.5 D. 28

108.The sum of first 21 terms of the AP –20,
–18, –16, …………, is
A. 0 B. –4
C. –8 D. 4

109.The sum of infinite GP is 6. If common
ratio is 1/3, the first term is
A. 6 B. 4
C. 3 D. 2

110.From the top of a tower, the angle of
depression of a car on the ground is
60°. If height of the tower is 40 m, the
distance of the car from the base of
tower is
A. 20√3 m B. 30√3 m
C. 40√3 m D. 40√3/3 m

111.The angles of elevation of top of a
tower, 30 m high, from two points on
same side of the tower are respectively
30° and 45°. If the point and tower are
in same line, the distance between two
points is
A. 15(3+√3)m B. 15(3-√3) m
C. 40(√3+1)m D. 30 (√3-1) m

112.If (x + 2) is a factor of 5×3 – 3×2 + ax +
2, then a is equal to
A. –25 B. –20
C. 15 D. 27

113.One of the factor of (5x – 7y)3 – (3x –4y)3
is
A. (2x – 3y) B. (2x – 11y)
C. (8x – 3y) D. (2x + 3y)

114.The value of k for which kx2 + 5x + 1 =
0, has equal roots is
A. 5/4 B. –5/4
C. 25/4 D. –25/4

115.The sum of squares of the roots of the
equations x2 – 7x + 6 = 0 is
A. 37 B. 35
C. 29 D. 27

116.Consider the following statements and
select the difference between Chaitya
and Vihara
A. Chaitya is a place of worship whereas
Vihara is a living place for Buddhist
saints
B. Vihara is a place of worship whereas
Chaitya is a living place for
Buddhist saints
C. Chaitya and Vihara both can be used
as a living place
D. There is not much difference
between the two

117.The world famous Takht-i-Taus (the
Peacock Throne) was kept in which of
the following Mughal buildings?
A. The Diwan-i-Khas at Fatehpur Sikri
B. Agar Fort
C. The Rang Mahal at the Red Fort at
Delhi
D. The Diwan-i-Aam at the Red Fort at
Delhi

118.With reference to the colonial rule in
India, consider the following events

1. Morely-Minto Reforms Act
2. Transfer to capital from Calcutta to
   Delhi
3. First World War
4. Lucknow Pact
   The correct chronological order of these
   events is
   A. 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 1, 2, 3, 4
   C. 2, 1, 4, 3 D. 1, 2, 4, 3

119.The latitudes that pass through Sikkim
also pass through
A. Rajasthan
B. Jammu and Kashimir
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Punjab

120.River Indus originates from
A. Hindukush Range
B. Himalayan Range
C. Karakoram Range
D. Kailash Range

121.Currently half of the world’s population
lives in just six countries. Identify them
from the following.
A. India, China, Bangladesh, Pakistan,
Brazil, Indonesia
B. India, China, United States,
Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan
C. China, India, United States,
Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan
D. China, India, Bangladesh, United
States, Pakistan, Indonesia

122.If a ship moves from fresh water not sea
water, it will
A. sink completely
B. sink a little bit
C. rise a tittle higher
D. remain unaffected

123.The focal length of a convex lens is
A. same for all the colours
B. shorter for blue light than for red
C. shorter for red light than for blue
D. maximum for yellow light

124.Which of the following is not correctly
matched
A. Decibel-unit of sound
B. Horse power-Unit of power
C. Nautical mile-unit of distance
D. Celsius-unit of heat

125.For distribution of powers between the
union and the states, the constitution of
India introduce three lists. Which two of
the following Articles govern the
distribution of power:
A. Articles 3 and 4
B. Articles 56 and 57
C. Articles 141 and 142
D. Articles 245 and 246

126.Which of the following can a court issue
for enforcement of Fundamental
Rights?
A. A decree B. An ordinance
C. A writ D. A notification

127.Twenty point Programme’ (Bees-kutri
Karyakrama) was first launched in the
Year
A. 1969 B. 1975
C. 1977 D. 1982

128.Among other things, which one of the
following was the purpose for which the
Deepak Parekh Committee was
constituted
A. To study the current socio-economic
conditions of certain minority
communities
B. To suggest measures for financing
the development of infrastructure
C. To frame a policy on the production
of genetically modified organisms
D. To suggest measures to reduce the
fiscal deficit in the Union Budget.

129.Who among the following developed the
concept of Huma Development Index.
A. Amartya Sen
B. A.S. Kadir
C. Alva Myrdal
D. Mehboob-ul-Haq

130.Ryder cup is related with which sport
A. Football B. Golf
C. Badminton D. Cricket

131.The Badminton player who won the
Malaysian open on April 5, is
A. Chen Long B. Lin Dan
C. Carolina Marin D. Li-xuerui

132.Dog bits can cause rabies. Which
among the following other animals can
also cause rabies
A. Donkey B. Bat
C. Horse D. Crocodile

133.A ‘flower bud’ which is used as a spice
is obtained from
A. Cinnamon B. Cardamon
C. Clove D. Coriander

134.The gas used for artificial ripening of
fruits is
A. Ether B. Ammonia
C. Acetylene D. Ethylene

135.H2O is liquid H2S is a gas because
A. Oxygen form stronger hydrogen
bond than sulphur
B. Oxygen is less electromagnetic than
that of sulphur
C. Atomic radius of oxygen is less than
that of sulphur
D. Atomic radius of oxygen is greater
than that of sulphur

136.In reaction between HCl and O2 is given
by
4HCl + O2 → 2H2O + 2Cl2
The equivalent weight of HCl equal to
A. Its molecular weight
B. Half of its molecular weight
C. Twice of its molecular weight
D. Four times of its molecular weight

137.Which has the highest electron affinity
A. F B. Cl
C. Br D. I

138.The country, which has decided to lift
ban on rice import from India in may
2015, is
A. USA B. China
C. Brazil D. Iran

139.LOK SABHA on MAY 7 cleared a bill to
lower the age of juveniles from 18 years
to
A. 16 years B. 15 years
C. 14 years D. 17 years

140.Who has been nominated by India to be
the first president $100 billion BRICS
bank being set up by the five big
emerging economics in may 2015
A. M.V. Tanksale B. K.V. Kamath
C. O.P. Batt D. Shikha Sharma

141.Pointing to a lady, Sunil said, “She is the
wife of my father’s wife’s brother.” How
is the lady related to Sunil?
A. Aunt B. Grandmother
C. Niece D. Cousin

142.The first two numbers on the left of the
sign ‘∷’ are related in a certain way. The
same relationship holds for the second
pair of numbers on the right side of the
sign ‘∷’ of which one is missing. Find the
missing one from the alternatives.
8 : 65 ∷ 11 : ?
A. 91 B. 107
C. 122 D. 145

143.‘Dice’ is related to ‘Cube’ in the same
way as ‘Ball’ is related to:
A. Circle B. Sphere
C. Shape D. Roundness

144.Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
are sitting in a circle facing the centre.
C is sitting between H and F. A is not
sitting opposite H. E is third to the left
of C. B is siting next to F and opposite
D.
Which of the following statement is not
correct?
A. G is between A and B
B. H is third to the left of B
C. C is sitting opposite A
D. G is sitting second to the left of D

145.Arrange the following words in a
meaningful logical sequence and choose
the appropriate number sequence from
the alternatives

1. Core 2. Thousand
2. Million 4. Trillion
3. Hundred 6. Billion
   A. 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5 B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4, 6
   C. 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4 D. 5, 2, 1, 3, 6, 4

146.One term in the following number series
is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
130, 60, 32, 18, 10, 6
A. 32 B. 66
C. 10 D. 18

147.If DEAF = 7349 and KITE = 5283, then
DIET would be coded as:
A. 7283 B. 7238
C. 3728 D. 7823

148.If ‘THRIVE’ is coded as ‘DUHQGS’, then
‘STRONG’ would be coded as:
A. FMNSQP B. RSQNMF

C. HOPSUT D. FMNQSR

149.One evening before sunset, Rohan and
Rahul were talking to each other face to
face. If Rahul’s shadow was exactly to
his left, which direction was Rohan
facing?
A. South B. North
C. East D. West

150.The numbers in the following figures,
follow a pattern. Which number would
replace the question mark?

A. 296 B. 215
C. 503 D. 527